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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 42
Whenever possible, medication orders should be by:
- A. Brand name
- B. Dose (explicit numeric dose and units)
- C. Color coding
- D. Verbal shorthand
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ordering by cleardose(with units, route, frequency, and indication when needed) reduces ambiguity and prevents common medication errors such as wrong concentration, wrong formulation, or misunderstood shorthand. Risk management objectives emphasize "closed-loop" medication communication: standardized ordering, read-back for limited verbal orders, and minimizing abbreviations that cause confusion (sound-alike drug names, numeric mishearing like 15 vs 50). Patient safety frameworks consistently identify unclear orders as a high-frequency contributor to adverse drug events; therefore, explicit dosing is a core reliability practice.
When dose is specified precisely and entered via CPOE (preferred), organizations reduce transcription errors, improve pharmacy verification, and enable automated safety checks. Clear dosing also supports legal defensibility by documenting rational prescribing aligned with standards of care.
NEW QUESTION # 43
What in particular is the process chain in a laboratory subject to?
- A. Zero human factors influence
- B. Exclusively equipment failure
- C. Variability across pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases
- D. Standardization only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Laboratory testing is best understood as atotal testing process(from test ordering through specimen collection, analysis, and result reporting). Across this chain, error risk is heavily influenced byvariability- especially inpre-analytical steps(patient identification, tube labeling, specimen handling, transport conditions) andpost-analytical steps(timely reporting, critical value communication, interpretation). Risk management objectives emphasize controlling variation through standard work, barcoding, competency training, environmental controls, and quality indicators for each phase. Importantly, many lab failures arise outside the analyzer itself; focusing only on the analytical instrument misses major sources of harm. Reducing variability improves reliability, reduces redraws and diagnostic delay, and supports defensible performance in accreditation and event review. In short: the lab process chain is a high-volume, multi-step clinical production system-variation is inevitable, but unmanaged variation increases patient safety risk.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following concepts is integral to supporting a Safety Culture in a healthcare organization?
- A. trending occurrences
- B. assigning blame
- C. disciplining an employee
- D. speaking up
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a culture of safety is grounded in open communication, transparency, and shared accountability. An essential element of safety culture is the expectation that all staff members feel empowered and psychologically safe to speak up about concerns, near misses, unsafe conditions, or potential errors without fear of retaliation.
Speaking up supports early identification of risks and fosters continuous improvement. It aligns with just culture principles, which distinguish between human error, at-risk behavior, and reckless conduct, promoting learning rather than automatic punishment. Encouraging staff to voice concerns strengthens teamwork, situational awareness, and patient-centered care.
While trending occurrences is an important analytical tool for quality improvement, it is a process measure rather than a core cultural principle. Disciplining employees and assigning blame, when applied indiscriminately, undermine trust and discourage reporting, thereby weakening safety culture.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize communication, accountability, and nonpunitive reporting environments. Therefore, speaking up is integral to supporting and sustaining a safety culture within a healthcare organization.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:
- A. Relocate intakes higher; establish a security zone; add lighting and surveillance
- B. Reduce HVAC maintenance
- C. Put a "No trespassing" sign only
- D. Paint the intake vents a different color
Answer: A
Explanation:
Air intake protection is a facility security and safety engineering control to reduce vulnerability to intentional contamination. Elevating intakes reduces easy access; security zones create stand-off distance; lighting and surveillance deter and improve detection. Risk management objectives emphasize layered physical security:
access control, environmental design, monitoring, and emergency response planning. In healthcare operations, these measures support resilience and continuity of care, reducing risk of mass exposure events that can overwhelm clinical capacity and cause severe harm.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A risk manager identifies a problem with the informed consent process in the organization. All of the following are appropriate interventions EXCEPT
- A. educating medical, nursing, and physician office staff on components of the informed consent process.
- B. conducting a medical record audit to ascertain completeness of consent forms.
- C. reporting physicians with incomplete consent forms to the appropriate peer review committee.
- D. reviewing and revising the informed consent policies and procedures.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, system-level issues in the informed consent process should first be addressed through quality improvement and educational interventions rather than immediate punitive action.
Conducting a medical record audit is an appropriate first step to identify patterns of incomplete documentation and determine whether the problem is isolated or systemic. Reviewing and revising policies and procedures ensures alignment with current legal standards and clarifies responsibilities for obtaining and documenting consent. Providing targeted education to physicians, nurses, and office staff reinforces understanding of required elements, including discussion of risks, benefits, alternatives, and patient questions.
Reporting physicians with incomplete consent forms directly to peer review may be appropriate in cases of persistent noncompliance or willful disregard of standards. However, when a systemic process problem is identified, immediate referral to peer review is not the appropriate primary intervention and may undermine a just culture approach.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize root cause identification, education, and process improvement before disciplinary escalation. Therefore, reporting physicians to peer review in this context represents the inappropriate intervention.
NEW QUESTION # 47
All of the following are valid reasons for performing risk management review of policies and procedures EXCEPT
- A. monitoring compliance with standards.
- B. ensuring consistency between practice and policy.
- C. maintaining staff competency.
- D. identifying potential risk exposures.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, periodic review of policies and procedures is essential to ensure alignment with current laws, regulatory standards, accreditation requirements, and best practices. Reviewing policies helps ensure consistency between written procedures and actual clinical practice, thereby reducing liability exposure.
Policy review also supports identification of potential risk exposures by detecting outdated language, conflicting guidance, or gaps in processes that could lead to adverse events. Additionally, monitoring compliance with standards-such as federal regulations, state statutes, and accreditation requirements-is a central purpose of policy review, ensuring that organizational practices meet required benchmarks.
Maintaining staff competency, however, is primarily addressed through education, training programs, credentialing, and performance evaluation processes. While policies provide guidance for staff conduct, competency assessment is not the primary objective of policy review itself.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize governance oversight, regulatory compliance, and risk mitigation through clear, current policies. Therefore, maintaining staff competency is not a direct reason for performing risk management review of policies and procedures, making it the correct exception.
NEW QUESTION # 48
What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?
- A. Impermissible access/disclosure (including "snooping" without a job-related need)
- B. Proper encryption practices
- C. De-identification
- D. Correctly authorized disclosures
Answer: A
Explanation:
A frequent HIPAA Privacy Rule violation isimpermissible access or disclosureof protected health information-commonly including employee "snooping" (accessing records of family, friends, coworkers, or celebrities without a work-related need) and other unauthorized disclosures. Risk management objectives focus on preventing these events through role-based access, audit logs with active monitoring, sanctions policies consistently enforced, workforce training, and a culture that treats privacy as patient safety. Even when disclosures are not malicious, "minimum necessary" failures, misdirected faxes/emails, and unsecured devices can create reportable breaches. Effective prevention is layered: technical controls (access restrictions), administrative controls (policies, training), and detection/response (auditing, rapid mitigation). Privacy violations are high-risk because they harm patients, trigger regulatory action, and damage trust and reputation.
NEW QUESTION # 49
For a risk management program to be effective, it needs:
- A. Only insurance coverage
- B. Only incident reporting software
- C. Organizational commitment, visibility/access, and physician engagement
- D. Only a policy manual
Answer: C
Explanation:
Effective risk management requires more than tools-it needs organizational commitment (tone at the top), operational visibility (access to events, leaders, data), and physician engagement because many high-severity risks involve medical decision-making and clinical leadership. Risk management objectives include preventing harm (patient safety), reducing financial loss (claims and insurance costs), ensuring compliance, and building a learning culture. Without executive and board support, corrective actions stall; without visibility, emerging risks are missed; without physician buy-in, clinical process redesign fails. Successful programs integrate with quality, patient safety, compliance, legal, and operations, and they use structured methods (RCA/FMEA, audits, claims trend analysis) to drive measurable improvement. This also strengthens defensibility: it shows governance, action, and continuous improvement-key elements in regulatory review and litigation.
NEW QUESTION # 50
The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 includes provisions to
* amend the Public Health Service Act to establish procedures for the voluntary confidential reporting of medical errors.
* enable the creation of patient safety organizations PSOs.
* require mandatory reporting to PSOs.
* classify patient safety work product reported to PSOs as privileged and confidential.
- A. 2, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 4 only
- C. 1, 3, and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards established by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 amended the Public Health Service Act to promote voluntary reporting of patient safety events. The Act established a federal framework to encourage confidential reporting and analysis of medical errors in order to improve patient safety.
The law enabled the creation and certification of Patient Safety Organizations PSOs, which collect and analyze patient safety data submitted by healthcare providers. Importantly, the Act designates patient safety work product submitted to PSOs as privileged and confidential, providing federal legal protections against disclosure in most civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings. This privilege encourages candid reporting and system-wide learning.
However, reporting to PSOs is voluntary, not mandatory. The Act was specifically designed to foster participation by offering confidentiality protections rather than imposing compulsory reporting requirements.
Legal and regulatory objectives in healthcare risk management emphasize understanding the scope of federal protections and ensuring proper designation and handling of patient safety work product. Therefore, provisions 1, 2, and 4 are correct, while mandatory reporting to PSOs is not required under the Act.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following can be considered evidence in a malpractice claim?
* photographs of injuries
* thank you note from the patient to the physician
* patient journal of the hospital stay
* gift from the patient to a volunteer
- A. 2, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 3 only
- C. 1, 2, and 4 only
- D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, evidence in a malpractice claim includes any relevant material that may help establish facts related to duty, breach, causation, or damages. Photographs of injuries are routinely admissible as demonstrative or documentary evidence to illustrate the nature and extent of harm. A thank you note from a patient to a physician may be introduced to reflect the patient's contemporaneous perception of care, credibility, or satisfaction at a particular time, depending on context. A patient's personal journal documenting experiences during hospitalization may also be considered evidence, particularly if it describes symptoms, interactions, or emotional distress relevant to damages.
A gift from a patient to a volunteer, however, is generally not probative of negligence or injury unless directly tied to issues of undue influence or misconduct. In typical malpractice litigation, such a gift does not establish standard of care, breach, or damages and would not ordinarily be considered relevant evidence.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize careful documentation, preservation of relevant materials, and coordination with counsel regarding evidentiary matters. Therefore, photographs, written communications, and patient journals may be considered evidence in a malpractice claim.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A hospital has opted to open an anticoagulation clinic. As this is a high-risk medication, a risk manager wants to conduct a risk assessment before opening the clinic. The BEST tool to use would be a
- A. root cause analysis RCA.
- B. scatter diagram.
- C. cause and effect diagram.
- D. failure mode and effects analysis FMEA.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis FMEA is the most appropriate tool in this scenario because it is a proactive risk assessment methodology designed to identify and mitigate potential failures before harm occurs. According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, FMEA is specifically used when introducing new processes, services, or high-risk clinical operations, such as an anticoagulation clinic involving medications with narrow therapeutic indices and significant bleeding risks.
FMEA systematically evaluates each step in a proposed process, identifies possible failure modes, analyzes their causes and effects, and prioritizes risks using severity, occurrence, and detectability scoring. This structured approach aligns with patient safety objectives by reducing preventable adverse events before implementation.
In contrast, Root Cause Analysis RCA is a retrospective tool used after an adverse event has occurred. A cause and effect diagram is a component often used within RCA or FMEA but is not a comprehensive risk assessment tool on its own. A scatter diagram is primarily used for statistical correlation analysis and does not evaluate process failures.
Therefore, for proactive risk identification and mitigation prior to clinic opening, FMEA is the best and most appropriate tool.
NEW QUESTION # 53
If a practitioner requests a telemedicine consult with another practitioner in another state, the consultant:
- A. Can practice under the patient's insurance plan only
- B. Never needs any license
- C. Can rely on verbal permission from the ED nurse
- D. May need to hold a valid license in the patient's state (requirements vary by state)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Telemedicine licensure is largely state-based in the U.S., and many states require the consulting clinician to be licensed in the state where the patient is located (with exceptions such as specific compacts, special telehealth registrations, or emergency provisions). Risk management objectives include verifying licensure
/credentialing before services, ensuring privileging-by-proxy processes where applicable, confirming malpractice coverage for telehealth and cross-state practice, and ensuring informed consent/privacy safeguards. Failure to comply can trigger regulatory penalties, payer issues, and liability exposure if care is delivered without proper authorization.
NEW QUESTION # 54
When considering the proper insurance to purchase for an organization and its practitioners, a risk manager should understand which of the following about specific types of coverage?
- A. Occurrence coverage provides coverage for incidents that occur while the policy is in effect.
- B. With claims-made coverage, the retroactive date does not impact the coverage of the insured.
- C. Occurrence coverage provides coverage for incidents that occur prior to initiation date of the policy as long as the event is reported to the insurer before signing.
- D. With claims-made coverage, the nose period has no significance to the coverage of the insured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, occurrence coverage provides protection for incidents that occur during the policy period, regardless of when the claim is reported. The triggering event is the date of the occurrence. As long as the alleged act or omission took place while the policy was in force, coverage applies even if the claim is filed years later.
Option A is incorrect because occurrence coverage does not extend to incidents that occur prior to the policy's effective date. Coverage is strictly tied to the policy period.
Option C is incorrect because in claims-made coverage, the retroactive date is critical. Coverage applies only to claims made during the policy period for incidents that occurred on or after the retroactive date.
Option D is incorrect because the "nose" period, also known as prior acts coverage, is highly significant in claims-made policies. It determines whether earlier acts are covered when switching carriers.
Risk financing objectives emphasize understanding policy triggers, retroactive dates, and reporting requirements. Therefore, occurrence coverage applies to incidents that occur while the policy is in effect.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following should a risk manager consider when evaluating the effectiveness of a claims management program?
* indemnity-to-expense ratios
* total number of cases reported
* percentage of cases resolved within reserves
* percentage of cases identified prior to claim
- A. 2, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 4 only
- C. 1, 2, and 3 only
- D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, evaluation of a claims management program focuses on efficiency, financial accuracy, and proactive identification of risk exposures.
Indemnity-to-expense ratios are important performance indicators that measure the proportion of funds spent on compensation versus defense costs. A balanced ratio reflects efficient claim handling and appropriate litigation management. The percentage of cases resolved within reserves evaluates the accuracy of initial reserve setting and ongoing claims assessment, demonstrating financial forecasting effectiveness.
Additionally, the percentage of cases identified prior to formal claim filing reflects proactive risk identification and early intervention practices, which may reduce litigation costs and improve resolution outcomes.
In contrast, the total number of cases reported alone does not measure program effectiveness, as volume may be influenced by patient population, service lines, or reporting culture rather than management quality.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize accurate reserving, early case identification, and cost-effective resolution strategies. Therefore, indemnity-to-expense ratios, resolution within reserves, and early case identification are appropriate metrics for evaluating the effectiveness of a claims management program.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A physician dies upon arrival to the emergency department from her home following a gunshot wound to the chest. The police report a history of domestic violence. The organization is required to notify the
- A. Department of Health and Family Services.
- B. organization's public relations department.
- C. Office of the Medical Examiner.
- D. state Board of Medicine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, deaths resulting from violent, traumatic, or suspicious circumstances are legally reportable to the appropriate medico-legal authority, typically the Office of the Medical Examiner or Coroner. A gunshot wound constitutes a violent and potentially criminal cause of death, triggering statutory reporting requirements.
When a patient is pronounced dead on arrival due to trauma, particularly with a history suggestive of domestic violence, the death falls within the jurisdiction of the medical examiner. The medical examiner has authority to determine cause and manner of death, order autopsy if indicated, and coordinate with law enforcement to preserve forensic evidence. Hospitals are required by state law to notify this office promptly.
The state Board of Medicine oversees professional licensure and discipline, not death investigation. The Department of Health and Family Services may have reporting roles for public health matters, but traumatic deaths are typically handled by the medical examiner. The public relations department may manage communications but is not a regulatory notification requirement.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with mandatory reporting statutes and preservation of evidence. Therefore, the appropriate entity to notify is the Office of the Medical Examiner.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What is one advantage of avoluntaryerror reporting system over amandatoryerror reporting system?
- A. Voluntary systems typically elicit more frontline reports and near-misses
- B. Voluntary systems eliminate the need for root cause analysis
- C. Voluntary systems replace peer review and credentialing
- D. Voluntary systems guarantee legal privilege in all states
Answer: A
Explanation:
Voluntary reporting systems often generatemore reports, especially ofnear-misses and low-harm events, because staff perceive less punitive risk and greater learning value. This is crucial for proactive risk management: near-misses expose weak signals and system vulnerabilities before a patient is harmed. A robust voluntary culture supports a "just culture" approach-encouraging reporting while still holding people accountable for reckless behavior. Compared with mandatory systems (typically limited to defined serious events), voluntary systems improve the organization's ability to identify patterns (communication failures, workflow traps, labeling issues, staffing risks), prioritize interventions, and measure improvement over time.
Risk management objectives include earlier hazard detection, better trend analysis, and stronger safety culture. To maximize effectiveness, leadership must provide feedback loops ("you reported, we improved"), protect confidentiality where permitted, and couple reporting with structured analysis (RCA/FMEA). While voluntary reporting does not automatically confer legal privilege, it is a foundational learning system in high- reliability healthcare operations.
NEW QUESTION # 58
What are the types of quality problems identified by the Institute of Medicine's Roundtable on Health Care Quality?
- A. Misuse, overuse, and underuse
- B. Access, cost, and satisfaction
- C. Timeliness, equity, and efficiency
- D. Abuse, fraud, and waste
Answer: A
Explanation:
The IOM's quality framing highlights three categories of quality problems:underuse(failing to provide beneficial care),overuse(providing care where harms outweigh benefits), andmisuse(errors/defects in delivering appropriate care). This triad matters to risk management because harm arises not only from mistakes (misuse) but also fromomissions(underuse) andunnecessary interventions(overuse). For example, missing a diagnostic test can cause deterioration (underuse), while ordering a risky, non-indicated procedure can cause avoidable complications (overuse). Misuse connects strongly to patient safety incident analysis and reliability engineering. Together, these categories provide a comprehensive lens for prioritizing improvement:
reduce preventable adverse events, close evidence-based gaps, and avoid low-value care that increases complications and cost. Using this IOM model supports a balanced quality/risk program that prevents harm across the full spectrum of clinical decision-making and care delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 59
The enterprise risk management process extends beyond clinical risk management by
- A. analyzing the organization's medication administration program.
- B. comparing the organization's internal and external environment for efficacy.
- C. maintaining risks in silos as the best risk management approach.
- D. ensuring its strategic priority at the senior leadership and governance levels.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following best describes the appropriate scope of a risk manager's involvement in community disaster preparedness?
- A. Quantify risk exposures associated with implementing the disaster plan.
- B. Analyze liability risks arising from patient harm sustained due to strained or inadequate resources during a mass-casualty event.
- C. Incorporate emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan designed to conserve and protect organizational assets.
- D. Calculate the value of human resources, equipment, and supplies consumed, with reimbursement to be obtained from FEMA.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a risk manager's role in community disaster preparedness extends beyond narrow liability analysis. The appropriate scope involves integration of emergency management into the organization's broader enterprise risk management framework.
Enterprise risk management ERM is a structured, organization-wide approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks that may affect strategic objectives, operations, financial stability, and reputation. Disaster preparedness is a critical operational risk that must be aligned with governance, compliance, continuity planning, and asset protection strategies. By incorporating emergency management into ERM, the risk manager ensures coordination across clinical services, facilities, supply chain, communications, and leadership structures.
Option A focuses only on post-event liability. Option C limits involvement to quantification without strategic integration. Option D addresses reimbursement processes rather than preparedness strategy.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize collaboration with emergency management teams, regulatory compliance with preparedness standards, and resilience planning to protect patients, staff, and assets.
Therefore, integrating emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan best defines the risk manager's appropriate scope of involvement.
NEW QUESTION # 61
For a liability claim to succeed, the claimant must establish duty owed, duty breached, proximate cause, and
- A. gross negligence.
- B. injury sustained.
- C. punitive damages.
- D. contributory negligence.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a successful negligence claim requires proof of four essential legal elements: duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages. Duty refers to the legal obligation owed by the healthcare provider to the patient. Breach occurs when the provider fails to meet the applicable standard of care. Proximate cause establishes the direct link between the breach and the harm suffered.
The final required element is actual injury or damages sustained by the claimant. Without demonstrable harm, a negligence claim cannot succeed, even if duty and breach are proven. The injury may include physical harm, emotional distress, or financial loss, but it must be measurable and attributable to the breach.
Contributory negligence is a defense that may reduce or bar recovery but is not an element the claimant must prove. Punitive damages are awarded in exceptional cases involving egregious misconduct and are not required to establish liability. Gross negligence represents a higher degree of negligence but is not a required element in standard malpractice claims.
Therefore, proof of injury sustained is essential for a liability claim to succeed.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following are essential elements of a standard loss run?
- A. date, location, and root cause analysis
- B. common law, case law, and analysis
- C. date, expense, and indemnity
- D. date, frequency, and severity
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a standard loss run is a report generated by an insurer or third-party administrator summarizing claims activity for a specific period. Loss runs are critical tools in risk financing, underwriting review, actuarial analysis, and budgeting for self-insured retentions.
Essential elements of a standard loss run include the date of loss, indemnity payments, and expense payments.
Indemnity reflects amounts paid or reserved for compensation to claimants, while expense represents allocated loss adjustment expenses such as defense costs, expert witness fees, and investigation costs. These data elements allow the organization to evaluate financial exposure, trends in claim development, and adequacy of reserves.
While frequency and severity are important analytical concepts derived from loss data, they are not typically listed as standalone fields within the basic loss run report. Legal analysis, case law references, and root cause analyses are not standard components of loss run documentation.
Risk financing objectives emphasize accurate tracking of financial exposure and informed forecasting.
Therefore, date, expense, and indemnity are essential elements of a standard loss run report.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following are common techniques used to include patients and families in programs to educate patients about their safety?
* lay persons on select committees
* patient education opportunities
* patient events referred for peer review
* event reporting by patients and families
- A. 2, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 4 only
- C. 1, 3, and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, patient and family engagement is a critical element of patient safety programs. Including lay persons on select committees, such as patient safety or quality committees, allows patients and families to contribute perspectives that enhance transparency and system improvement.
Structured patient education opportunities empower individuals to understand their care, ask questions, and actively participate in safety practices, such as medication verification and infection prevention.
Event reporting by patients and families is another proactive strategy that promotes open communication and early identification of safety concerns. Encouraging patients to report perceived errors or near misses supports a culture of safety and partnership.
Referring patient events for peer review is an internal professional evaluation process focused on provider performance and quality improvement. While important for clinical oversight, it is not a technique designed to directly include patients and families in educational safety programs.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize collaboration, transparency, and patient-centered care.
Therefore, inclusion of lay persons on committees, patient education initiatives, and patient or family event reporting are appropriate techniques for involving patients in safety programs.
NEW QUESTION # 64
The risk manager is called by an administrator and told that a member of the pharmacy staff was arrested last night for illegal distribution of controlled substances. Which of the following recommendations should the risk manager make to administration?
* Verify the pre-employment background check.
* Inventory controlled drug stock.
* Interview other pharmacy staff.
* Notify the National Practitioner Data Bank.
- A. 2, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 3 only
- C. 1, 2, and 4 only
- D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, when a pharmacy staff member is arrested for illegal distribution of controlled substances, the organization must focus on immediate operational and patient safety concerns.
Verifying the pre-employment background check ensures compliance with hiring policies and identifies whether due diligence was properly conducted.
An immediate inventory of controlled drug stock is essential to detect diversion, identify discrepancies, and comply with DEA requirements for controlled substance accountability. Prompt reconciliation of medication records protects patient safety and mitigates regulatory exposure.
Interviewing other pharmacy staff supports investigation of potential diversion patterns, internal control weaknesses, and workflow vulnerabilities. This step aligns with system-based risk management and prevention of further loss.
Notification to the National Practitioner Data Bank is not automatically required based solely on an arrest.
NPDB reporting typically involves certain professional review actions, licensure restrictions, or clinical privilege actions, not merely criminal charges unless formal disciplinary action occurs.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize safeguarding controlled substances, regulatory compliance, and internal investigation. Therefore, verifying background checks, inventorying stock, and interviewing staff are appropriate recommendations.
NEW QUESTION # 65
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